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I have seen that many yeshivos (and recently, even some shuls) often say just Misod and the Reshus on RH and YK, and then skip the actual piyutim they are meant to introduce! This is even more evident in Musaf where they say Misod and go directly to Zachreinu L'Chaim. But it's clear that Misod is there because we are introducing piyutim in the first brachos (as is the case with other yotzros on yom tov and daled parshios). And therefore, on the second day of RH in Musaf, there is no Misod, even though we still say Unesaneh Tokef.

Question 1 - Does anyone know of any rationale for such a practice? (I understand that the goal is to save time in order to say other parts of the davening more slowly, but saying the first three piyutim (the ones that follow Misod) does not really add more than 2-3 minutes, (and they add so much to the davening.)

Question 2 - If they really need to skip parts of the davening, why not say less stanzas in Melech Elyon, and not lose out on the beautiful piyutim that connect the brachos that we just had a whole long Reshus ("Yereisi biftzosi" on first day) to introduce them?

Question 3 - And if they specifically don't want to say these piyutim, why say Misod and the Reshus at all?

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related judaism.stackexchange.com/a/14450/759 –  Double AA Sep 11 '12 at 20:42
    
Thanks. This is related but doesn't answer the question here. We are talking about longer piyutim that require Misod (unlike in Mussaf of Shkalim/Hachodesh), but the Misod cannot (from what I understand) be referring just to Melech Elyon/Hashem Melech which is what many yeshivos say, since the piyut always immediately follows Misod. Otherwise, why do we interrupt the chazarah with Misod at this point if not to add in these very "lofty" piyutim? –  aaron Sep 11 '12 at 20:47
    
Also, the Reshus is clearly a later introduction (see Saks Machzor for example) to the earlier piyut of Hakalir. How can they let go of this much earlier piyut, and just interrupt the davening with a later introduction to the piyut they are skipping, completely out of context? –  aaron Sep 11 '12 at 20:50
    
+1, nice question, but, if I understand it correctly, your question #1 is simply asking why some synagogues omit some yotz'ros and the like, which is a very general question somewhat unrelated to the very specific one (or two) you're otherwise asking and should probably be asked as a separate question rather than lumped together with the rest here. –  msh210 Sep 11 '12 at 22:26
    
According to Rabbi Artscroll, "Misod..." is an introduction to all piyutim contained in the Shmoneh Esreh, saying "We wouldn't do this ourselves, but others told us to do this, so we'll alter the nusach of the tefilah with these piyutim." If so, even one piyut would make it acceptable –  b a Sep 12 '12 at 0:18
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1 Answer

It comes from amaratzus, plain and simple. There is no heteir to skip over piyuttim written by kodshei elyon like HaKalir (probably an early Gaon) or Rishonim (meshulam bar kalonymos, a ba'al tosfos). This practice (I won't call it a minhag since Rav Eliyashiv doesn't) comes from the yeshivos where they had to skip because the bochrim were talking too much during piyuttim.

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Do we have a source for the quote from Rav Eliyashiv please? –  Avrohom Yitzchok Nov 12 '13 at 15:03
    
@AvrohomYitzchok, he merely said Rav Eliyashiv doesn't say something. There's no quote referred to at all. –  msh210 Feb 11 at 6:54
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@msh210 So how do we understand Gavi's answer? (1) Rav Eliyashiv says nothing at all about this practice. (2) Rav Eliyashiv mentions this practice but does not call it a minhag. If (2) I would like a source. In addition, I find it difficult to believe that Roshei Yeshivoh were guilty of "amaratzus, plain and simple" and that "bochrim were talking too much during piyuttim". So I will vote this answer down in the absence of any evidence for either of its points. –  Avrohom Yitzchok Feb 11 at 16:31
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