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Is human flesh a kosher food?

Please provide both modern and classical sources.

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Who said it isn't kosher? –  Double AA Sep 10 '12 at 22:45
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^^^ M.Y. version of "What have you tried?" ;-) –  HodofHod Sep 10 '12 at 23:13
    
@DoubleAA - By Genesis 9:3, humans were given permission to eat kol remes asher hu-chai ("every moving thing that lives", according to ArtScroll). Would that also include human flesh? Otherwise, there's a negative inference: all that humans may eat (kal va-chomer all that is kosher) is by explicit permission only. –  Ted Hopp Sep 10 '12 at 23:18
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@DoubleAA , related (baal tsaktzu) judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/17504/… –  sam Sep 10 '12 at 23:34
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2 Answers

up vote 12 down vote accepted

The Rambam writes (Hilchos Machalos Asuros Perek Beis Halocha Gimmel):

האדם--אף על פי שנאמר בו "ויהי האדם, לנפש חיה" (בראשית ב,ז), אינו בכלל מיני חיה בעלת פרסה; לפיכך אינו בלא תעשה. והאוכל מבשר האדם או מחלבו, בין מן החי בין מן המת--אינו לוקה. אבל אסור הוא בעשה, שהרי מנה הכתוב שבעת מיני חיה ואמר בהן "זאת החיה אשר תאכלו" (ויקרא יא,ב)--הא כל שהוא חוץ מהן, לא תאכלו; ולאו הבא מכלל עשה, עשה הוא.

Translation by Rabbi Eliyahu Touger:

With regard to humans: Although [Genesis 2:7] states: "And the man became a beast with a soul," he is not included in the category of hoofed animals. Therefore, he is not included in the [above] prohibition. Accordingly, one who partakes of meat or fat from a man - whether alive or deceased - is not liable for lashes. It is, however, forbidden [to partake of human meat] because of the positive commandment [mentioned above]. For the Torah [Leviticus 11:2] lists the seven species of kosher wild beasts and says: "These are the beasts of which you may partake." Implied is that any other than they may not be eaten. And a negative commandment that comes as a result of a positive commandment is considered as a positive commandment.

[As a side point - if you stick your hand into a pot of boiling soup do you need shishim? I remember seeing an answer somewhere that taste does not come out of something that is alive..]

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There you go. The question asks for "both modern and classical sources" and you've included both the Rambam and a modern translation. :-) +1. –  msh210 Sep 11 '12 at 15:15
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no, it's not food at all, its not included in kol basar so it's a la'v to eat it

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Any sources? Can you clarify what you mean by 'kol basar'? –  Double AA Sep 11 '12 at 4:45
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