Take the 2-minute tour ×
Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Can one have leftovers from ones wife when she becomes a nidda being that the leftovers is from the day before she became a nidda?

It is somthing really mutar but yet still leftovers.

share|improve this question
1  
Your last sentence is confusing. Are you saying it is really Mutar, or are you asking? –  Seth J Sep 10 '12 at 17:52
1  
From a lomdishe perspective I would be tempted to compare this to אברי בשר נחירה שהכניסו ישראל עמהן לארץ (Chullin 17a, and see Rosh ad loc.), but from a point of Halacha I think it is abundantly clear that whatever causes חבה is forbdden, so if these are leftovers that would be forbidden had she become a Niddah ten minutes earlier, they are not any less forbidden when she becomes a Niddah later. I cannot cite a specific source on the spot so I am not putting this as an answer, but if you look through Tur and Beis Yosef YD 195 I would think you should come to the same conclusion. –  Dov F Sep 10 '12 at 18:05
add comment

2 Answers

From Family Purity by Rabbi Fishel Jacobs

If she entered the niddah state during a meal, the couple must begin acting appropriately[65]

[65] Sugah Beshosonim 4:33. Note: "If she became niddah during the meal, the husband is permitted to finish," (Pischei Teshuvah 195:7) this refers to consuming her leftover food, not a reminder between them.

I don't have either of those books or I would look it up. The phrasing "permitted to finish" makes we wonder if it refers only to a case where both are [already] eating from the same plate. As opposed to taking her plate and eating from it.

As far as leftovers from yesterday goes, as soon as she leave the room, or the food is moved to a different plate it becomes mutar.

The husband is permitted to consume the wife's leftover food or drink is at least one of the following conditions exists:

  • She has left the room[101]. He is allowed to ask her to leave the room for this purpose[102].
  • He didn't know she ate or drank from the food or drink. In such a case, she is not required to tel him[103].
  • The food or drink was transferred[104] into another plate or cup[105]. This helps even if it was then returned to the first plate or cup. It is permissible to move the food or drink to another cup or plate for this purpose[106].
  • Someone else ate or drank from it between the wife and the husband[107].

[101] Ramo 195:4
[102] Bodei Hashulchan 195:74
[103] Tzemach Tzedek 195:4
[104] This only allows food or drink which normally require a plate or cup, for example liquids, cooked vegetables, etc., but not, for example cupcakes and similar food, Sugah Beshoshonim 6:9
[105] This can be done intentionally for this purpose, Sugah Beshoshonim 6:10. See Be'er Eliyahu 6:10.
[106] Darchei Moshe, poskim.
[107] Tzemach Tzedek 195:4

share|improve this answer
    
Can you source your opening paragraph? Also why introduce a different question, instead of just saying "But if they haven't been transferred and she has not left the room..." –  Double AA Sep 10 '12 at 19:31
    
@DoubleAA Thanks for pushing for source, even if it's a bit annoying. I have completely changed my answer. –  Ariel Sep 10 '12 at 20:15
    
I trust you don't take it personally when I do so :) Thank you for your effort and +1 –  Double AA Sep 10 '12 at 20:23
    
Can you source your last paragraph? Specifically, that the food is permitted to him if she leaves then room and then returns. –  msh210 Sep 11 '12 at 15:13
1  
@msh210 Sure. I've edited my answer. –  Ariel Sep 11 '12 at 23:05
add comment

There are a number of ways that what are colloquially called leftovers can avoid the status of "shiraei ochel shelah" (remnants of her food). According to the packet my wife got in kallah classes, if eaten on a different plate, the food may be eaten. Similarly, if the wife is not present, the food may be eaten. Both of these are far easier to accomplish if these are leftovers from yesterday.

Like Dov F, I am tempted to compare this to אברי בשר נחירה שהכניסו ישראל עמהן לארץ (Chullin 17a, and see Rosh ad loc.). During the 40 years in the desert, meat killed in a certain way (nechira) was permitted. Upon crossing into Israel, that method of slaughter was no longer acceptable as shechita. Was meat left over from before they crossed the Jordan acceptable, or now that new rules of shechita apply, is the old meat prohibited? This is a very obscure question of halakha seemingly with practical application beyond a few days in history. However, the Rosh says it theoretically applies to any time a new rule is created. Since yesterday the food was permitted (pre-nidda), in theory the ruling about the leftover nechira meat would apply.

share|improve this answer
1  
Dov F's comment wasn't a full answer, so he gets a pass. Please explain your last sentence. –  Seth J Sep 10 '12 at 18:58
add comment

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.