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In Psalm 51:6 David says that "Against Thee, Thee only, have I sinned, and done that which is evil in Thy sight" (JPS) I wondered why does he think that he sinned only against the Lord? I think he also sinned against Bathsheba and also sinned against the people of Israel. |
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Radak gives two explanations: His own explanation is that since no one knew about the sin with Betshabe but G-d, he had only sinned to G-d, i.e. only G-d knew about it. Alternatively, he quotes Rabbi Saadiah Gaon that the verse means that to G-d alone he confessed his sin, even though he did sin to others. |
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I've heard that there is an ancient (Jewish only?) custom that a soldier would divorce his wife and then remarry her after the war. Not divorcing one's wife could lead to a circumstances where the soldier dies, but the girl cannot marry another, which would then be a waste of natural resources from community's points of view and be quite sad. So technically Batsheba is not married and hence marrying her is not a sin at all. In fact, I am not sure what the big deal is all about. Secularly, in ancient time, marriage is important mainly to decide fathership and inheritance. I do not think there is any confusion on paternity on who Batsheba's children is. Uriah didn't end up inheriting his wealth to the wrong kids. David is a responsible father that inherit quite a lot for Batsheba's children. Hence, no victim. |
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