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The Shliach Tzibur reads most prayers quietly until (about) the last verse, and then reads the last verse out loud (either for the congregation to follow along, or for them to answer Amen). Should the Chazzan finish the paragraph quietly to himself before repeating the last verse out loud, or should he say the last verse out loud as he arrives at that verse, without repeating it.

I would think repeating verses wouldn't be ok, since according to Bruchos 14a-b, when davening, one should not repeat words (aside from times you make a mistake and need to repeat the prayer again), however this may not apply to a Shliach Tzibur who is expected to say those verses out loud.

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@ba I recall the opposite: the Gra held Emet should only be said once, while the standard psak is to always say it twice. –  Double AA Aug 28 '12 at 16:26
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zaq, I think you are assuming that these things should not be said quietly, when in fact many think that they should. Perhaps you can source your assumptions. –  Double AA Aug 28 '12 at 16:48
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My vague memory is as good as anyone's but it says that the Chaye Adam holds that only in the case of the end of Sh'ma (i.e. "Hashem Elokechem, emes") should the leader repeat the words he said quietly. –  WAF Aug 28 '12 at 22:32
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These are two separate issues/questions. Shema' is a unique case. You are supposed to say it quietly and then repeat it aloud. Other places, you are just signifying or letting the Kehillah know where you are, so they can begin the next paragraph together. –  Seth J Aug 30 '12 at 13:34
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The custom among Ashkenazim of the Shliah Tzibbur saying the last couple of lines of each psalm in Psukei DeZimra aloud is just a way to let people keep in sync with each other. But it is not fulfilling any halakhic obligation. –  paquda Aug 30 '12 at 14:33

1 Answer 1

I don't have a source for this, but I don't think there is one (3 months is enough time for bigger Talmidei-Chachmim than me to find one), so I'll use logic (aka Svara).

Ashkenaz minhag is that the shat"z (shliach-tzibur) says the prayer quitely except for last (and maybe also first) verse of each part (and defining "part" is quite... per part). The Sepharad minhag is that shat"z says (almost) the whole prayer out loud. Sepharadim don't repeat the last sentence. So there's certainly no problem "using" the single sentence for two puposes: praying and informing the tzibur that the part is over. I'd say that there's no Isur and Ashkenazim can do the same.

Since there's no problem with saying the last verse once and thus "using" it also for sync with the tzibur, I just don't see any justification for repeating it. Not that it causes great harm, but what for?


EDIT: repeating ends of blessings might well be Bracha-Levatalla as DoubleAA mentioned. Also, when the last verse contains Shem Hashem it might also be considered as saying Shem Hashem Lashav (for no justified need).

All-in-all, this leads to a more unequivocal conclusion, that the last verse should not be repeated.

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Is this the minhag in all Ashkenazi style congregations? Those in USA? Israel? Europe? What about those who daven Nussach Sefard or Nussach Ari? Do Chassidim follow this custom as well? When you say Sephardim do you mean those from Spain-Portugal? North Africa? Iraq/Iran? Are these based on your personal observations or what you have heard from others? Do you know if this was their original minhag in their respective countries of origin? –  Double AA Nov 27 '12 at 23:37
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In any event, your logic that it doesn't cause great harm seems to me to be far-fetched. Would you allow the Chazzan to recite a closing blessing twice? Sounds like a bracha levatalla. –  Double AA Nov 27 '12 at 23:40
    
@DoubleAA, I imagine yair was interpreting "verse" in the question as pasuk, a fair interpretation. (I suspect the asker meant it more generally, though.) –  msh210 Nov 27 '12 at 23:51
    
@DoubleAA first, as this is a minhag - and as neither I, nor anyone else in this site up to now, has found a source for the minhag - I based my description on my observations (mostly) in Israel. It includes too various Ashkenzaim and Sepharadim to bother to mention. However, I accept that it'd be good to indicate it in the answer. Second, in my answer I asume that (1) the logic can be based on even one widely acceptable minhag and (2) that the Sepharadim in Israel (and a few places abroad) answers that requirement. –  yair Nov 28 '12 at 0:10
    
@DoubleAA (answering second comment second :-)) Although "Not that it causes great harm" is not my main argumnet, you're absolutely right. I didn't refer in my answer to the end of blessings. Although msh210 helps me (dan lechaf zechut), I can say that I did have in mind to indicate that I exclude blessings and to explicitly apply the answer to Korbanot, Psukei Dezimra and the such. –  yair Nov 28 '12 at 0:19

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