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Thomas O. Lambdin calls out the words שְנַיִם and שְתַּיִם as exceptions to "shewa as the initial vowel in a word is always vocalized," i.e. it is "shtayim" and "shnayim". That's a secular expert's view.

I recently moved, and the Rabbi at my new shul says "shi-tayim" and "shi-nayim." I asked him about it, citing in particular that in שְתַּיִם the tav would not have a dagesh if the shewa were vocalized. He said he has a source, but I haven't seen it.

What is the halachically correct pronunciation: "shtayim" or "shitayim"?

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I think a 3rd possibility (or explanation of your first possibility) is 'eshtayim', with a very light vowel sound preceding the Shin, enabling the Shin to be pronounced with a shva nach. –  paquda Aug 27 '12 at 15:52
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Comments related to the scope of this question have been moved to a dedicated chat room. –  Double AA Aug 28 '12 at 4:23
    
@DoubleAA now that I have enough reputation to chat, the cr you linked to is gone. –  Yosef Sep 4 '12 at 19:55
    
@Yosef I'm sorry, I must have missed your ping. The room was removed automatically for inactivity. If you still have something to add, I can reopen it for you. –  Double AA Sep 19 '12 at 19:36
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2 Answers

Your Rav is correct that most of the time (in fact, nearly all the time), a Shəvah under the first letter of a syllable should be Na', but he is not correct about the Dagesh.

Shtayim is the correct pronunciation, and is even evidenced by the fact that the Dagesh wouldn't be in the Tav if the Shəvah weren't Naḥ.

See, for example, Arabic, which, as a way of compensating for the same phenomenon, has an introductory vowel, an Alif, before the Shin (well, really, its cognate; the Arabic/Hebrew relationship is funny).

Another example to compare with Arabic is Ibn. In Hebrew it's Ben. Why the difference? Because both languages are compensating for the fact that it's really Bn. One (Arabic) compensates with an introductory vowel, while the other (Hebrew) compensates with a change in the first vowel. Yehoshua' Bin Nun can be seen as an example where the original pronunciation was somewhat preserved (this question asks why his name is Bin Nun instead of Ben Nun, and the answers tend to assume a more Midrashic reason, although this one delves a bit into the grammar).

Other examples abound in Arabic, and many Arabic-speakers have a distinct accent when speaking English or other languages with double consonants at the beginning of words, such as "eblease" (please; there's also no 'p' in Arabic), and my favorite example, Eskander, the Arabic name for Alexander ('Al' being treated as the direct object and therefore dropped, leaving a name starting with 'X', which is transposed to 'Sk', which is a double-consonant, which gets the helper-vowel 'ə' appended to it).

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I feel like the lack of the Dagesh in the Shin here has got to be related he.wikisource.org/wiki/… –  Double AA Nov 27 '13 at 4:47
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Ibn Janah and other early Jewish grammarians in the centuries immediately after the Masoretic Era state that the shewa is nah (quiescent) and the daghesh is qal (soft). Ibn Ezra was surprised to discover many many communities in North Africa that retained the pronunciation eshtayim which was not the case in his native Spain. Despite comments you might see to the contrary, eshtayim was not pronounced with a real aleph. It was described that way because the grammarians could not imagine a vowel that did not follow a consonant -- hence they described pathah genuba (furtive pathah) as having a "hidden" aleph before it. The epenthetic (helper) vowel was a hateph-segol. The key question for your Rabbi is whether he is simply following the arbitrary rule that shewa on the first letter of a word is na` (mobile). If so, he is in error. If, however, he is following a specific shita of a recognized authority or of an authentic reading tradition, then he should do so. You will need to determine in this whether you determine your tradition as the Rabbi does. The rule of shewa on first letter of a word being na` is misstated. The rule actually is that a shewa on the first letter of a syllable is na`. This is the only case where the first letter of the word does not start a syllable. By the way, none of this applies to shenayim, where the shewa is na`.

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Hayyim, welcome! I posted a similar answer (with one horribly embarrassing mistake, so I've since deleted it). But I have some differences in mine. Do you have some source for your final statement regarding Shenayim? –  Seth J Oct 10 '13 at 20:38
    
Seth, no source at the moment; just the argument of thunderous silence. Let me know if you find one. –  Hayyim Obadyah Oct 15 '13 at 18:51
    
Hayyim Obadyah, welcome to Mi Yodeya, and thanks for your great answers. Note that backticks (`) set off monospace font in the formatting system here; to use a backtick to transliterate an ayin (in a question or answer), you'll need to use \` (backslash backtick). (This will only be necessary if you include two backticks in one post, since that's how the software will 'know' you mean them as setting off text.) See also judaism.stackexchange.com/posts/31573/revisions. –  msh210 Oct 16 '13 at 4:42
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