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Since the Conservative movement tends to take most of its minhagim from the German tradition due to its German roots, most Conservative Jews in America tend to practice the German customs (such as wearing a tallis after bar mitzvah and waiting 3 hours between meat and milk).

According to Orthodox Judaism, should someone whose parents are Conservative Jews continue to follow his parents' customs, or should he follow the customs of his ancestors before them? What if he doesn't know what the customs of his great-grandparents, etc were? Does it matter whether the customs taken on by his parents are stricter or less strict than those of his ancestors (for example they were Dutch and only wait 1 hour)?

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Any excuse is good enough to get to wear a tallit from bar mitzva :) –  Double AA Aug 17 '12 at 6:14
@DoubleAA What exactly do you mean by that? –  Daniel Aug 17 '12 at 13:31
@Daniel, it is thought that the reason why Eastern European Jews (chassidim, litvaks, et al.) don't wear a tallit until marriage is due to economic conditions. However, what I think Double AA is trying to say is that it is preferable to wear a tallit gadol during davening if one is able to. –  Noach mi Frankfurt Feb 14 '14 at 5:15

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If you do not know the minhagim of your parents, or are unsure as to their validity, you are supposed to take on the minhagim of your personal Rav. If you don't have a personal rav, or are unsure what the minhagim are, then you are supposed to take on the minhagim of the place you live. If the place you live does not have it's own minhagim and you do not have your own personal rav or school, then you follow the answer of whomever you ask a question to, when you ask the question.

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Can you provide some sources? –  Double AA Aug 19 '12 at 22:14

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