Take the 2-minute tour ×
Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. It's 100% free, no registration required.

The Gemara in Berachos 12b says "They sought to establish [various passages] in the Shema" and "they establish[ed] the passage of tzitzis in the Shema" (Artscroll trans.)

I had thought that the obligation to recite the Shema was biblical. Who established the passage of tzitzis in the Shema, and if only this passage was established - with Shema and V'haya being biblical requirements - does this make Vayomer derabanan?

share|improve this question
1  
Most rishonim hold vayomer is derabanan like you say (the Rambam being a notable exception). Many also hold that the Vehaya is derabanan and a few hold Veahavta is derabanan. The Mishna Berura mentions this in 67 sk 4 but he doesn't mention any names. –  Double AA Aug 14 '12 at 7:11
1  
@DoubleAA sounds like an answer... –  yoel Aug 14 '12 at 7:29
1  
Daf Yomi Challenge? –  Seth J Aug 14 '12 at 12:05
    
@yoel I would prefer to have at least one rishon to name before posting. –  Double AA Aug 14 '12 at 14:42
    
@DoubleAA - The Sefer haChinnuch on Devarim 6:7 (?) comes to mind. –  Adam Mosheh Aug 14 '12 at 15:02
add comment

1 Answer

Most Rishonim it seems do view the final paragraph of Shema as rabbinic in origin.

Rashba to Brachot 13b understands that only the first verse is a Biblical requirement from the story that Rabbi Yehuda HaNasi used it alone to fulfill his obligation in certain circumstances.

Rashi on Brachot 2a implies that only the first paragraph is a Biblical requirement by stating that one fulfills one's nighttime obligation by reading THE FIRST PARAGRAPH on his bed.

The Yerei'im concurs citing Brachot 16a that workers need only recite the first paragraph.

The Peri Chadash (OC 67) understands Rabbeinu Yonah (Brachot 1a) as understanding that the first two paragraphs are biblical.

The Rambam (Keriat Shema 1:3) when simply read seems to imply that all three paragraphs are a biblical requirement, but the Kesef Mishna understands him to be limiting the biblical requirement to the first verse.

More discussion can be found in the commentaries to Shulchan Aruch OC 67 and in this excellent article.

share|improve this answer
add comment

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.