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I met someone who lives outside of Israel almost full-time and who told me that, because he's in Israel for each of the shalosh r'galim every year, he keeps only one day yom tov. Is this (the applicability of that criterion alone) a valid halachic opinion, and, if so, whose?

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I seem to remember hearing this opinion in the name of Rav Shlomo Zalman Aurbach, but my level of certainty is definitely in the 'comment-worthy' range. –  Double AA Aug 7 '12 at 12:20
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@DoubleAA, sounds like an answer. –  msh210 Aug 7 '12 at 17:58
    
Eventually, but in the meantime, user1040 never edited in a source for his statement and that would seem to be crucial for this question. –  Double AA Aug 8 '12 at 2:54
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@ms210 Found it :) –  Double AA Sep 9 '12 at 3:39

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up vote 3 down vote accepted

Rabbi Shlomo Zalman Aurbach rules this way in a responsum (Minchat Shlomo 1:19:7). After reading it I'm not sure if he also requires that they own a permanent dwelling in Israel to live in during Chag or not; CYLOR for a final ruling (as usual).

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Absolutely CYLOR, I know my Rav holds that if you're in Israel keep one day, and if you're outside keep two (without owning a permanet dwelling). But I know of other rabbis that hold differently. –  zaq Sep 9 '12 at 4:48
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@zaq You're talking about the general question which this post does not deal with. This post is specifically about the view that living there for all three holidays is the relevant factor. –  Double AA Sep 9 '12 at 6:01
    
Ah, didn't read the question fully. –  zaq Sep 9 '12 at 12:47

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