I met someone who lives outside of Israel almost full-time and who told me that, because he's in Israel for each of the shalosh r'galim every year, he keeps only one day yom tov. Is this (the applicability of that criterion alone) a valid halachic opinion, and, if so, whose?
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Rabbi Shlomo Zalman Aurbach rules this way in a responsum (Minchat Shlomo 1:19:7). After reading it I'm not sure if he also requires that they own a permanent dwelling in Israel to live in during Chag or not; CYLOR for a final ruling (as usual).