Tell me more ×
Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Suppose Ruvein lends Shimon his car for thirty days, with the stipulation that if he returns it late he owes $100 (and no further details). Shimon returns it on day 15. On day 25 (of the thirty days), Shimon comes back and asks to borrow it again, saying "my thirty days aren't up".

  • Is Ruvein obligated to lend the car a second time?

Suppose Ruvein lends it again, and Shimon returns it on day 40 (ten days after the end of the thirty).

  • Does he owe the fine for returning on day 40, or do the thirty days start again and therefore it's like it was on day 15 and he'd be patur?
share|improve this question
2  
and there was no discussion when he came back to borrow the second time? Seems like a kind of far-fetched situation – Daniel Jul 26 '12 at 17:38
1  
I think the answer to this would depend entirely on the exact terms of the agreement made at the beginning of the loan. Without them, it's impossible to answer. With them, the question's still probably "Too Localized." – Isaac Moses Jul 26 '12 at 17:46
What exact words were used when the agreement was made? – Monica Cellio Jul 26 '12 at 17:48
I'm closing this as a temporary measure so you can edit the question, MosheY, in a way that takes care of Daniel's comment (and the others). Please ping me with @msh210 after you do so, or Monica Cellio with @MonicaCellio, and someone will reopen it. – msh210 Jul 26 '12 at 17:56
1  
I didn't realize anonymous people on the internet could be impaneled as a Beith Din. And am I the only member of this illustrious court who is inclined to rule that the answer is life, the universe, and everything? – Seth J Jul 26 '12 at 22:29
show 5 more comments

closed as not a real question by Isaac Moses, msh210 Jul 26 '12 at 17:56

It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, see the FAQ.

1 Answer

Once something is returned within the terms he has met his obligation. If he reborrowed then he can now keep it for another 30 days.

share|improve this answer
3  
I don't know how you could know enough details of their agreement to answer with certainty. – Double AA Jul 26 '12 at 17:57
The question said that On day 25 (of the 30 days) shimon comes back and borrows it again. If he is borrowing it again that means the first act of borrowing was complete. – Gershon Gold Jul 26 '12 at 18:53

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.