I could be wrong, but my reading of the Nosei Keilim (Y"D 125:1) indicates to me that if a non-Jew pours a bottle of wine, the remaining wine is totally fine, or at least ok if there is some loss (even RaM"A says it's ok in case of a significant loss, but my question is sparked by the fact that the N"K all seem to argue that either he didn't even mean "significant" the way that he usually does, or that it's an unnecessary stringency that they reject).
My understanding has always been that if a non-Jew poured a bottle of wine, that the wine poured and the wine remaining became Asur, and I've heard (and practiced care as a result) that the Isur may even apply to non-religious Jews.
Is there something I'm missing? Am I misreading the Nosei Keilim? Do later authorities reject them?
*This is addressing only wine remaining in the bottle after wine has been poured by a non-Jew, and only according to the Ashkenazi supercommentaries on the Shulḥan 'Aruch.