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The S"A 125:1 (YD) states that a non-Jew pouring non-Mevushal wine makes (at least) that wine unfit, but other than citing earlier authorities (maybe, I can't figure that part out) he doesn't give a reason, and I must say, I can't figure out why.

It isn't because of idolatry as there is no physical contact for a stirring libation, extra pouring for a pouring libation or shichshuch for a shaking libation, and the rema, in 123 states that simply touching a container of even open wine (non-mevushal) is no problem.

In fact, this was not a concern in Masechet Avodah Zarah 71a. In the mishna there, a non-Jew lifts up barrels of a Jew's wine and pours wine out to make a purchase. The only question there is one of ownership (kinyan hagba'ah). If the ownership is not effected, the wine in the barrel doesn't become unfit. Where does this additional measure of forbidden-ness come from?

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@GershonGold How so? This question isn't asking about wine that a non-Jew touched. –  Double AA Jul 18 '12 at 17:28
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@GershonGold, not at all. He's asking how, despite all indications to the contrary, the Isur became codified. –  Seth J Jul 18 '12 at 18:17
    
@GershonGold that other question dealt with the touching of the wine (according to one reading) and mentioned that touching the bottle is NOT a problem. And yet we know pouring now is though it wasn't in the mishna. How did that additional level of issur develop? –  Danno Jul 18 '12 at 19:11
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the gemara on 58b gives two facts codified by the rambam mechon-mamre.org/i/5212.htm -- wine "b'kocho" without kavanah of idolatry is mutar for drinking but miderobonon should be avoided because of lech, lech! (though halacha 13 says that if a non jew helped in pouring the wine it is still mutar). also halacha 11 says that anything not clearly talmudic avodah zarah is not included anyway. so why do we worry today? –  Danno Jul 19 '12 at 14:35

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