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If a father is Matir Neder on a minhag (gebroktz, let's say) for himself for a valid reason, does that include his whole family? Are they now also permitted to eat gebroktz because that is now the fathers minhag? Would there be a difference between his son who is bar mitzvah and one who is not bar mitzvah (still under the fathers rule)?

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How is this different from if the father took on a new minhag? I don't see why that would be binding on others, certainly not on sons over bar mitzva! –  Double AA Jul 13 '12 at 17:33
@DoubleAA ,diff is the minhag is from grandfather if the father has to break the minhag I understand,but the son whos real minhag is from his grandfather does it switch or stay the same. Do youhave any sources? –  sam Jul 13 '12 at 18:23
(I don't know why you say the grandfather's minhag is the real one.) So the cases are parallel. Using your example: If I accept gebrochts, should my son over bar mitzva have to start keeping it when his grandfather didn't and he never did growing up? No source, but seems highly unlikely. –  Double AA Jul 13 '12 at 18:46
What does his wife do? Just trying to get some sources to work it out. –  sam Jul 13 '12 at 19:06

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