Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

If a father is Matir Neder on a minhag (gebroktz, let's say) for himself for a valid reason, does that include his whole family? Are they now also permitted to eat gebroktz because that is now the father's minhag? Would there be a difference between his son who is bar mitzvah and one who is not bar mitzvah (still under the father's rule)?

share|improve this question
How is this different from if the father took on a new minhag? I don't see why that would be binding on others, certainly not on sons over bar mitzva! – Double AA Jul 13 '12 at 17:33
@DoubleAA ,diff is the minhag is from grandfather if the father has to break the minhag I understand,but the son whos real minhag is from his grandfather does it switch or stay the same. Do youhave any sources? – sam Jul 13 '12 at 18:23
(I don't know why you say the grandfather's minhag is the real one.) So the cases are parallel. Using your example: If I accept gebrochts, should my son over bar mitzva have to start keeping it when his grandfather didn't and he never did growing up? No source, but seems highly unlikely. – Double AA Jul 13 '12 at 18:46
What does his wife do? Just trying to get some sources to work it out. – sam Jul 13 '12 at 19:06

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.