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If an Ashkenazi Sofer writes a Sefer Torah in the Sephardi or Yemenite tradition:

a) has he fulfilled his obligation of writing a Sefer Torah (thanks, Double AA!), and

b) since a Sefer Torah must be written LiShmah, is it valid for a Sephardi or Yemenite to use?

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May he in terms of what: To fulfill the mitzva of writing a Torah? To avoid lifnei iver to those who read it for the mitzva (if you assume that Ashkenazim view it as pasul)? –  Double AA Jun 29 '12 at 19:03
    
@DoubleAA, Your first point is awesome. I hadn't considered that. I'm going to clarify my question and add that in. Thanks! –  Seth J Jun 29 '12 at 19:05
    
I'm not sure I follow your second point. Why would it not be Lishmah if I'm from a different Eidah? –  Double AA Jul 1 '12 at 20:36
    
@doubleaa, if an Ashkenazi wrote a Sephardi Torah for his own use because he felt it was more correct, then would it be valid? He has a Mesorah, right? We say you have to follow your Mesorah. At what point can one break from his Mesorah if he links up with another? My question is about whether an Ashkenazi's Sephardi Torah is valid generally (ie., not limited to the more specific question about his own use), but this is the train of thought I'm riding. –  Seth J Jul 1 '12 at 21:04

1 Answer 1

Chacham Ovadia in his Yachaveh Daas chelek 2:3 writes that a sefardi sefer Torah is good for an ashkanazi and a ashkanazi sefer Torah is kosher for a Sefardi. This is in the actual Torah itself (the ksav),so if one would write either one he would get a mitzvah of ksivas sefer Torah. Regarding reading from the Torah(nothing to do with the ksav only the pronunciation) Chacham Ovadia in Yechaveh Daas 6:19 writes that by parshas zachor one should hear it in his pronunciation because it is a doraisa and there is a discussion on this.

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