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If an Ashkenazi Sofer writes a Sefer Torah in the Sephardi or Yemenite tradition:

a) has he fulfilled his obligation of writing a Sefer Torah (thanks, Double AA!), and

b) since a Sefer Torah must be written LiShmah, is it valid for a Sephardi or Yemenite to use?

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May he in terms of what: To fulfill the mitzva of writing a Torah? To avoid lifnei iver to those who read it for the mitzva (if you assume that Ashkenazim view it as pasul)? – Double AA♦ Jun 29 '12 at 19:03
@DoubleAA, Your first point is awesome. I hadn't considered that. I'm going to clarify my question and add that in. Thanks! – Seth J Jun 29 '12 at 19:05
I'm not sure I follow your second point. Why would it not be Lishmah if I'm from a different Eidah? – Double AA♦ Jul 1 '12 at 20:36
@doubleaa, if an Ashkenazi wrote a Sephardi Torah for his own use because he felt it was more correct, then would it be valid? He has a Mesorah, right? We say you have to follow your Mesorah. At what point can one break from his Mesorah if he links up with another? My question is about whether an Ashkenazi's Sephardi Torah is valid generally (ie., not limited to the more specific question about his own use), but this is the train of thought I'm riding. – Seth J Jul 1 '12 at 21:04
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