Tell me more ×
Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. It's 100% free, no registration required.
up vote 5 down vote favorite

There is a known rule that Rishonim cannot argue on the Gemara when it comes to "Halachic" drashos. For example, a Rishon will never give a different answer to a question which the Gemara already answered (Tosfos may ask why the Gemara didn't give that other answer, but he will never give his own answer without more). This is true whether the Gemara's subject is practical Halacha or not.

However, when it comes to aggadic drashos on Tanach, we find Rishonim "disagreeing" with Midrashim and late Acharonim disagreeing on Rishonim. Why do Rishonim feel freer to disagree on an explanation of Chumash than to disagree with a Gemara?

share|improve this question

1 Answer

up vote 6 down vote

The Rambam writes in one of his letters:

We do not pose difficulties with [i.e. from] the Aggadah. Are they words of Tradition or expressions of reason? Rather each individual considers their explanation as it seems fit to him. In this [Aggadah] there are no words of Tradition, no prohibition and no license, and no law among the Laws; therefore we do not pose difficulties with it. Should you say to me as many have said to me, “Can it be that you apply the term Aggadah [as pertains to this argument] to words of the Talmud?” It is so; all of these words and those similar to them are Aggadah in their reckoning, whether they be written in books of Derashos, whether they be written in books of Aggadah.

This position is echoed by various Ge'onim and Rishonim; see for example Otzar HaGeonim to Chagigah (pp. 59-60) from R. Hai Gaon and R. Shereira Gaon, and the Ramban in his famous Disputation.

share|improve this answer
What troubles me with this answer is that the Ramban will knock out Chazal's interpretation in a midrash using logic. If it can be knocked out through logic, why didn't Chazal think of it before choosing that interpretation? – b a Jun 22 '12 at 20:24
@ba Your question refutes itself - because I ask you, based on your own premise, is it possible the rishonim who held this way didn't think of this objection? – Dov F Jun 22 '12 at 20:30
Chazal considered all the problems with an answer (as is evident from the gemara). Saying their reasoning was perfect in halachah but not perfect in agadah is a little inconsistent. But sometimes the truth is inconsistent... – b a Jun 22 '12 at 20:41
2  
@ba That's a straw man. Who ever said Chazal's reasoning was perfect in halacha? The fact that we do not veer from the psak of the Gemara does not imply this. – Dov F Jun 22 '12 at 20:59
1  
@ba What are you trying to show from Karisos 12a? – Curiouser Jun 22 '12 at 22:13
show 13 more comments

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.