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If a fellow converted (his children remained gentiles) and prior to his conversion he had children - has he fulfilled the Mitzva of Peru U'Revu? (sources)

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    I think you need to distinguish between "fulfilling the mitzvah", and subsequently being "exempt from the mitzvah". See the tshuva of Har Tzvi (OH 2:76).
    – Curiouser
    May 15, 2012 at 17:21

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This is part of a discussion on Yevamot 62a. The Shulchan Aruch rules (EH 1:7) that if he and his children converted he has fulfilled his mitzva. The Chelkat Mechokek there (sk 9) quotes the Marharil (#223) that even if his children do not convert he has fulfilled his mitzva.

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  • And the Taz there says the opposite, that the children must convert also.
    – Curiouser
    May 15, 2012 at 17:38
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    @Curiouser Just like the Shulchan Aruch himself, and the Rambam and others. I was just quoting one major opinion on both sides. Obviously CYLOR.
    – Double AA ♦
    May 15, 2012 at 17:40

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