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If a fellow converted (his children remained gentiles) and prior to his conversion he had children - has he fulfilled the Mitzva of Peru U'Revu? (sources)

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I think you need to distinguish between "fulfilling the mitzvah", and subsequently being "exempt from the mitzvah". See the tshuva of Har Tzvi (OH 2:76). – Curiouser May 15 '12 at 17:21
up vote 7 down vote accepted

This is part of a discussion on Yevamot 62a. The Shulchan Aruch rules (EH 1:7) that if he and his children converted he has fulfilled his mitzva. The Chelkat Mechokek there (sk 9) quotes the Marharil (#223) that even if his children do not convert he has fulfilled his mitzva.

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And the Taz there says the opposite, that the children must convert also. – Curiouser May 15 '12 at 17:38
@Curiouser Just like the Shulchan Aruch himself, and the Rambam and others. I was just quoting one major opinion on both sides. Obviously CYLOR. – Double AA May 15 '12 at 17:40
Isn't it interesting that a person is not mekayeim this mitzvah by performing the ma'aseh mitzvah? It seems like the ma'aseh mitzvah is only hachanah lemitzvah because it will not necessarily lead to kiyyum. – Adam Mosheh May 15 '12 at 17:55
@AdamMosheh Why are you so convinced there is a maaseh mitzva? Maybe the mitzva is just to be in the state of having children. – Double AA May 15 '12 at 18:21
@AdamMosheh Again, also possible. It turns out that all of this is a big machloket rishonim and achronim. Tosfot, I believe, says like you that Biah is the Maaseh Mitzva, and you have to keep having Biah until you have two children. Others have different understandings. – Double AA May 15 '12 at 18:54

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