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I've read that ידים is to be pronounced ya- DAI - im, yet שמים is to be pronounced sha-MAI-yim.

Both end the same, but are pronounced differently. (This was from a text purporting to teach "Biblical Hebrew, meaning as it was pronounced in ancient times).

Is there a rule I am missing? Seems strange, as the orthography is exact for the pair.

Thanks

EDIT: I would like to thank Dave for pointing out later on in the book the author completely contradicts her original phonetic rendering and spells all of the duals with the YIM ending.

Also, I initially spelling yadaim with two yud and I apologize for the error.

EVEN MORE INTERESTING: It appears in Modern Hebrew there has been a spelling change to include two yud whereas Biblical only used one, seemingly to prevent this confusion.

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Hello EEE and welcome to Mi Yodeya! Thanks for the great question on precise Hebrew pronunciation. Could you cite the text to which you refer? – WAF May 14 '12 at 1:14
I take it that this was an "academic" text? – Dave May 14 '12 at 1:41
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@DoubleAA: not so. See Gen. 27:22, for example. Other duals don't have a dagesh in that yud either, like אַפַּיִם. – Alex May 14 '12 at 3:08
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@EEE That's because there is not a diphthong in this case. The diphthong you describe is when a patach syllable is closed by a yud. Here, the yud doesn't close the patach syllable. The patach syllable is left open, and the yud opens the next syllable. (Note that to close a syllable one needs a shva nach, or a dagesh chazak which is the functional equivalent. Here the yud has neither, so there is no diphthong.) – Double AA♦ May 14 '12 at 4:50
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@EEE I don't see what the problem is: ya-da-yim as I said above. No diphthong. – Double AA♦ May 14 '12 at 15:55
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