Psalms 31:6 in a Tanakh is beyadcha afkid ruchi, padita orti, adonai el emet. The same verse in an English Bible is at 31:5 because they skip what is 31:1 in a Tanakh. Which is correct?
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In general the Jewish practice is to "number" the introduction of each Psalm, such as "Mizmor l"David/A Psalm of David", while the Christian practice is to begin the enumeration after the introductory phrases. Accordingly for most of the book of Psalms the Jewish enumeration of the verses is one different the Christian enumeration. This isn't a matter of English versus Hebrew. Jewish translations will follow the "Hebrew" count as well.
I will try to confirm that this is the correct explanation in this situation.
From the yutorah lecture by Rabbi Dr. Shneur Leiman on the Dead Sea Scrolls:
There are occasional differences in the text between ours of Tanach (known as the Masoretic text) and the King James Bible (and other Christian Bibles). The Christian Bibles are generally based on the Greek translation.
With the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls, we now have the Bible text that was used by the non-mainstream splinter group of Jews who lived in what's now Qumran. (Some say they were Boethusians, some say Sadducees, etc.; they clearly had some different practices than the Perushim, who were the mainstream.) Their text tends to match the Christian one in places it differs from our text (e.g. a verse with "nun" in Ashrei, Psalm 145.)
A skeptic would probably claim that the Christian/Qumranic text is the more accurate one. Chas V'Shalom. A more mainstream-Judaism-friendly explanation is that when the Christians formed their Bible, they used the text of a splinter group such as the Qumran folks, not the mainstream. (Which gets us into questions about the formation of early Christianity, which is a big, messy, complicated topic.)
Does that answer your question?