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According to those who hold that there is a Kiyyum Mitzvath 'Aseh DeOraitha (a fulfillment of a positive Biblical commandment) every time one eats a KeZayith (olive size's worth) of Matzah on Pesaḥ, does this also apply on the 8th day in Ḥutz LaAretz (the Diaspora), which is a DeRabanan (rabbinic mandate)?

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Why would they be any different? We eat matza and maror at both seders with brachot, say kiddush both nights, etc. I see no reason to assume that we treat the second day of any yom tov any different than the first. –  Double AA Apr 12 '12 at 17:03
    
BTW SethJ why don't you use a 'Ẓ' for Ẓadi? –  Double AA Apr 12 '12 at 17:13
    
@DoubleAA To answer your second question first (forgive me), I never have. I have yet to reconcile my thoughts on how Hebrew ought to be pronounced with my fear that the aforementioned thoughts might be incorrect. I remain 100% convinced about Ḥ and 'Ayin, and 90-99% convinced about Thav (or Thaw, but, again, my hesitation), so I use the first two even in Tefillah and the third quite frequently outside of Tefillah and transliterate them all in writing that way, but my reservations and nagging fear of being "incorrect" about others keeps me from committing on the rest of the Aleph Beith. –  Seth J Apr 12 '12 at 17:18
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Ahh I misunderstood. I though you were asking if there was a seperate derabanan fulfillment for each kezayit. What you are actually trying to ask is if there is a deorayta fulfillment on the eighth day. If that is so, then I agree it is not deoraita on day 8, but I think it would be a derabanan kiyum. –  Double AA Apr 12 '12 at 17:45
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There was a specific enactment:הזהרו במנהג אבותיכם Do exactly as they did. They ate maror for two nights, you eat maror two nights; they sat in the sukkah every day, you sit in the sukkah every day; they had matza as a kiyum every day, you have matza as a kiyum every day. –  Double AA Apr 12 '12 at 19:09
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