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I inherited a set of dishes from a Jew.

I don't know how observant this Jew was.

Do I need to toivel them?

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Roman numeral III here (and I don't know the provenance of these notes) seems to indicate that ownership, not particular knowledge of what the dishes were used for can obviate tevillah, but if you know that the Jewish owner didn't toveil them then tevillah is required. yoy.org.il/article.php?id=57 – Dan Apr 3 '12 at 13:17
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Safek derabanan lekula, safek deoraita lechumra. – Double AA♦ Apr 3 '12 at 16:13
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You "don't know how observant this Jew was". Can you rely on the fact that they were used only for kosher food? – Avrohom Yitzchok Apr 3 '12 at 17:13
@DoubleAA Can you provide sourced answer as to how this principle would apply here? – minhag May 20 '12 at 23:15

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