Esther 3:5 says, “וימלא המן חמה” Haman was filled with butter. This would presumably make his flesh basar b’chalav, but Shemos 16:35 clearly says “ובני ישראל אכלו את־המן” the Children of Israel ate Haman; how was this allowed?
|
closed as too localized by msh210♦ Feb 28 at 18:44
This question is unlikely to help any future visitors; it is only relevant to a small geographic area, a specific moment in time, or an extraordinarily narrow situation that is not generally applicable to the worldwide audience of the internet. For help making this question more broadly applicable, see the FAQ.
|
The answer is simple. It is true that Haman was filled with butter early in the megilla. But if you read on, you will find out what the end of this story was. In Esther 7:6:
Clearly, the king removed the butter from within Haman and left with it. That which “ובני ישראל אכלו את־המן” happened after this whole story and after the butter was removed from Haman, making him simply basar, but not basar b'chalav. |
|||||||||||
|
|
In parashas B'ha'alosecha (B. 11), the b'nei Yisrael cried out "מִי יַאֲכִלֵנוּ בָּשָׂר"- who will feed us meat- "אֵין כֹּל--בִּלְתִּי, אֶל-הַמָּן עֵינֵינוּ"- we have nothin to look at except Haman. If Haman was meat, why are they complaining for meat? It must be that Haman became filled with butter which replaced the meat that used to be there. |
|||
|
|
|
Haman is a descendant of Amalek, of whom it says אשר קרך בדרך - he cooled you off on the way (Deut. 25:18). They are therefore a "cold" people. Haman's flesh, then, was cold, and so there was no problem of cross-contamination between the meat and the butter. (At most you'd have to remove a kelipah - but fine, Haman himself was the ultimate kelipah.) |
|||||
|
|
|
חמה is margarine, חמאה is butter, so there was no problem as they ate him with margarine. (source חמה דחמה) |
|||
|
|
|
First we must address Dinei כחל (Y"D 90).
So it would seem from the above that, so long as Haman was properly sliced and drained, especially if he was roasted, it is Mutar to eat him. However, that is in reference to a Kosher animal (such as a properly slaughtered cow or sheep). Human flesh has its own issues:
So, now that we have established that one can eat human flesh according to the majority opinion, can we then apply the Din of כחל to this case? Unfortunately, I think probably not:
There is, however, one final issue that may shed some light onto this subject.
He explains that since it is an Isur DeOraitha to cook Behemah with milk the Marith ‘Ayin applies, but for Isurei DeRabanan, there’s no need to impose Marith ‘Ayin. Why is a woman’s milk only Asur to cook with meat because of Marith ‘Ayin? The answer brings us back to RaMBa”M’s opinion that human flesh is Asur because of an Isur ‘Aseh.
Therefore, eating Haman is Mutar LeGamrei (entirely and without question) according to the majority opinion in the Rishonim. {For background, see Ḥullin 109 on the subject of כחל (udder). The Mishnah says, "The כחל must be cut and the milk must be removed. If it was not cut, one does not transgress a Lav (negative commandment)." |
|||||||||||||||||
|
|
Would Chalav Nochrei be a problem? Most hold that since butter can only be made from kosher animals this is not a problem (is this a proof that Haman was kosher?), some are machmir that maybe some non-kosher milk would be mixed in and hence it would sit on the top the butter. (SA YD115:3) But in truth I think that it is cholev yisroel and it was Mordechei that caused the chemah in Haman. |
|||||||
|
|
The butter only filled up Haman's torso. So, all of his internal organs are assur to eat, cook, or have any benefit from. However, his extremities never touched the butter. That's why we eat Haman's ears. |
|||
|
|
|
Haman was compared to "flesh of donkeys". Therefore, since Donkeys are an impure animal, there is no Biblical prohibition of Milk and Meat. It makes sense to say that the Rabbinic prohibition (if there even is one [see Shulchan Aruch/Bach]) didn't exist yet. For the Halacha behind this, see Pirchei Shoshanim ad loc |
|||
|
|
|
Chalav Zachor answer this problem. The Mechaber (SA YD87:6) say eating meat with "male" milk is "aino lokin" - ie osser drabbanan. But the Rama (ibid) says that it is nothing - ie muter. The Shach (16) explains that the mechaber is referring to animal male milk, which is osser drabbanan to eat with milk, but the Rama is referring to human male milk, which is muter. Since haman's butter is from a male, it would be muter to eat with meat. |
|||||
|
|
The Mefarshim (see Malbim Bereshit 19 and more in the introduction Yalkut Yosef Basar BeHalav)say that animals which are created with Sefer Yesira are not considered Basar and since we know that Haman was created with Sefer Yesira through this Rashe Tevot: ה-הוא נ-נברא מ-מספר it didn't matter that he had butter because he was "Pareve." |
|||||||||||||||
|
|
Siman Tzadi in Yoreh de'ah discusses the din of Kechal, an udder. The udder is filled with milk when the animal is shechted, and it is presumingly Kosher. Rabbeinu Tam paskins this way, while Rashi disagrees and says that since it is filled with milk it cannot be eaten unless the milk is beaten out of the udder. This is exactly what the first answer says. Acheshverosh made sure to beat the butter out of Haman before Bnei Yisrael ate him. Alternatively, Bnei Yisrael held like Rabbeinu Tam and the butter filled Haman would be considered Kosher anyways. |
|||||
|

