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Why and by whom was there a yud added to make "ירושלים" instead of the original "ירושלם"?

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Aren't both usages in Joshua? – avi Mar 1 '12 at 9:48
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This question could be improved with the addition of some documentation that the name has changed. – Isaac Moses Mar 1 '12 at 9:57
@avi I'm not sure, I haven't noticed. IsaacMoses As far as I remember, every time I see it in the Tanakh, it is without a second yud; whereas everywhere else I see it, it is with. Is there anything needed beyond just the fact that it never seems to appear with a second yud in the Tanakh (to my recollection)? – Aman Mar 1 '12 at 11:45
@Aman I asked because wikipedia says it first appears in the book of Joshua, but with no citation. Perhaps change the question to where does Yerushaliam with a second yud first appear? – avi Mar 1 '12 at 11:49
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Related: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/3791/… – Dave Mar 1 '12 at 15:39
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My concordance (Even-Shoshan) reports that there are only four places in Tanach where "Yerushalayim" has the yud between the lamed and mem. One is in the book of Esther ("who had been exiled from Yerushalayim"); once in Jeremiah ("v'samti es yerushalayim le'iyim"); once in II Chronicles, and I don't recall the last one off the top of my head. But look it up in a concordance.

Presumably no one went in and "added a yud" in those places -- that was the way it was supposed to be spelled there, for whatever reasons.

(Note that the Aramaic name for the city is "Yerushleim", which wouldn't have a yud; and we say the name "Yerushalayim" may be a compounding of "Hashem Yireh" and "Shalem", which would again explain why there's not usually a yud.)

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Names of people and places often change in tanach, and we often give a story as to why the name change took place. Are there no midrashim about Yerushalim's extra yud? – avi Mar 1 '12 at 17:16
The four are Jer 26:18, Est 2:6, I Chron 3:5 and II Chron 25:1 – Double AA♦ Oct 24 '12 at 4:15

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