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If "Reuven" believes the halacha to be one way and "Shimon" believes it to be more lenient may Reuven rely on Shimon to do something for him based on this leniency?

Here is a 100% fictional practical example to illustrate the concept that I am asking about, please note I am NOT posing this as the actual question, the actual question is what was stated above: Reuven's Rav has given a psak that not using a kli sheini is bishul m'deoraita. Shimon's Rav holds you can use a kli rishon. Can Reuven drink a tea made for him by Shimon?

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Might I suggest you remove the "or does he have a mitzvah to rebuke Shimon instead", which is a separate question? –  msh210 Feb 23 '12 at 21:20
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@Will this is just a completely fabricated example –  none Feb 23 '12 at 21:51
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are you asking qua maaseh shabbat or qua lifnei iver? –  Double AA Feb 23 '12 at 22:27
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I have amended the question. I opted to leave the example in because I think the question itself is abstract and I'm hoping an example will better illustrate the concepts. If someone would like to pose a better example I'm happy to replace. –  none Feb 24 '12 at 1:32
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@msh210 I think you misunderstood my comment. No matter what the case, there are two perspectives one can approach from: the issue of causing a sin and the issue of benefiting from it. I used the shabbos terms, but those are the general questions for any case he brings. (Each case of course will have different ways of balancing the two...but see my previous comment for that.) –  Double AA Feb 24 '12 at 6:41

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up vote 11 down vote accepted

From SimchasTorah's excellent answer to Is it permissible to open soda cans on shabbos?

Even someone who does not open cans on Shabbos may use a can that was opened on Shabbos even if they were opened for him (Iggres Moshe: O"C Chelek Daled Siman Kuf Yud Tes Ois Heh) and does not require the person who opened it to drink from it. Non the less he may not ask someone to open it for him(Kuntres Yad Dodi, Harav Dovid Feinstein,pg. 31).

This is not necessarily an answer that applies all across the board, but at least it does indicate that such a principle exists.

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I was once told that someone who doesn't hold of the eiruv may benefit from something that was carried by the person who does hold of the eiruv. No source, though. –  Menachem Feb 24 '12 at 18:15
    
@Menachem related: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/10240/… –  HodofHod Feb 24 '12 at 18:31

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