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I know you are supposed to give between 10 and 20% of your income to צדקה. Does this mean that you are not allowed to give over 20% if you have enough money to do so? If so, why not? (this is more of a theoretical question for me)

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1  
B"H for many people (myself definitely excluded) it isn't theoretical. – Double AA♦ Feb 20 '12 at 22:38
Ari, that was a quick decision between 2 arguing answers :) – Double AA♦ Feb 20 '12 at 22:57
The second answer wasn't poset yet when I chose. – Ari A Feb 20 '12 at 23:05
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They were posted under 2 minutes apart. I'm simply suggesting for future reference that you give it some time before accepting answers. That is my practice; others may argue. – Double AA♦ Feb 20 '12 at 23:10
+1, great question – Adam Mosheh Jul 16 '12 at 14:54

4 Answers

up vote 10 down vote

R. Shneur Zalman of Liadi writes (in Iggeres Hateshuvah 3 and Iggeres Hakodesh 10) that the 20% limit applies only to a person who hasn't sinned, or who has done so but then fasted the prescribed number of fasts as atonement. For someone who is giving tzedakah to atone for his sins, though, there is no limit - just as a person will spend all he has in search of a cure for his bodily illnesses, so too with spiritual ones.

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Chamira Sakanta MeIsura. – Double AA♦ Jun 6 '12 at 22:43
up vote 9 down vote

Kesuvos 50a says that you should not give more than 20% in order not to become dependent on others. However Yoreh Deah 249 says that if you can afford it you may give more. The Igros Moshe Yoreh Deah 1, Siman 143 says that in actuality unless it is for Pikuach Nefesh not to give more than 20%.

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See the Tosefot in Bava Kama 9b – Hacham Gabriel Feb 21 '12 at 2:24
up vote 8 down vote

According to here:

[The twenty percent rule] applies only to someone whose income does not provide generously for his family. Someone who has a job or business that provides adequately for his family is permitted to give everything above his needs to tzedakah even if it is more than twenty percent of his income or his holdings.

And from here:

Apparently, when Rav Yosef Sholom Elyashiv was asked he replied that he permits it. When he is summoned to the Heavenly Court, he added, he will present his Halachic reasoning for this ruling. If it is accepted, well and good, and if not – he is willing to accept upon himself the consequences!

I strongly associate with the latter view.

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What does "I strongly associate with the latter view." mean? – msh210♦ Feb 21 '12 at 0:59
@msh210 It makes a lot of sense to me. I'm not anyone's posek, but I thought I would throw in what I feel. Obviously CYLOR. – Double AA♦ Feb 21 '12 at 2:29
I don't understand why you post your posts before they are done. – Gershon Gold Feb 21 '12 at 2:32
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@GershonGold ??? What's wrong with editing in something new after I find it? My original answer was sourced and complete in its own right and that's why I posted it. In your answer here you knowingly significantly misrepresented an issue and didn't source even the claims that were correct! These cases are in no way paralel and you know it. – Double AA♦ Feb 21 '12 at 3:38
up vote -2 down vote

Be a chassid and as much as you are able to give of your own to others.

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That source does not seem pertinent. Did you mis-link? – msh210♦ Jul 16 '12 at 20:26
Nope, read it again. – Adam Mosheh Jul 16 '12 at 20:59

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