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If a Jewess married to a Jew has a child from a non-Jew is that child a mamzer?

Is there agreement amongst the poskim about this?

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strongly related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/1348/759 – Double AA Feb 9 '12 at 19:12
up vote 7 down vote accepted

I don't know about modern poskim, but the Shulchan Aruch (Even HaEzer 4:19) rules that the child of a gentile and a Jewess independent of her marital status is not a mamzer but is disqualified from marrying a kohein (kohanim in general have stricter strictures restricting marriage). None of the standard commentaries there seem to disagree.

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I have translated 'pagum' as 'disqualified' although the level of disqualification is not clear. For our purposes I think this suffices. As usual CYLOR if necessary. – Double AA Feb 9 '12 at 18:58
@Vram I thought the Halacha is we don't believe a woman to say that she cheated on her husband because we suspect she is simply lying to attain a divorce. – Double AA Feb 10 '12 at 6:23
I love this: "stricter strictures restricting". – Seth J May 25 '12 at 3:15

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