In today's Parashat Hashavu'a Chat, I used the qualification "lehavdil" (*) to apply to a pun that jokingly and innocuously related the actions of Datan and Aviram to those of a community member here.
Have you seen a source for this rule?
What is the reason for it?
Does it really mean that we shouldn't use the word to distinguish between a wicked Jewish person and a righteous one? If so, why?
(*) "Lehavdil," literally "to separate," indicates that while two entities may be juxtaposed in conversation, we don't intend to equate them in terms of religious value. For example:
Did ... great rabbinic thinkers of the 1800s ... comment on American slavery and/or the Civil War? (As Dostoevsky did, lehavdil?)