Why in the case of Lo Matzti Libitcha Bisolen in Makkot does a husband only get Makkot and pay shouldn't he get Kasher Zamam and be killed just like what would have happened to his wife.
If you're referring to the Biblical case of "motzee shem ra": Deuteronomy 22:13--19; see Rabbi Kaplan's translation and notes, The Rambam explains (in Hilchos Na'ara Besula 3:6) that the case is in fact that the husband has two witnesses falsely testify against his wife; the witnesses are indeed "zamam"-ified and potentially executed.
The husband arranged for false witnesses but never took the stand as a witness himself. (He'd be disqualified as a relative anyhow.) Hence he can't be executed; only flogged and fined.
The Gemara points out that in any case where Person A hires Person B to do something evil (such as murder or being a false witness), it's Person B who takes most of the culpability. to paraphrase the Gemara, "I was just following orders" is nice, but he should have followed Divine orders before Person A's.