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Why do we say "He Tishalell":She Shall Be Praised if we can just say "Isha Yiras Hashem Tishallel": Woman who fears is Praise worthy what does the extra specification of "HE"(she) add?

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If me is who, and who is he, and he is she, does that mean that I am she? Ok sorry for the corniness, but I think you should find a better transliteration than "he". –  HodofHod Dec 26 '11 at 7:37
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@HodofHod Don't forget that dog is fish. –  Double AA Nov 12 '12 at 17:49
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1 Answer 1

up vote 3 down vote accepted
  1. Try to follow the "rythm" of the whole pasuk: Chen and Yofi (if they come by themselves) in a women are either hevel or sheker (need some translation help with the nuances) but in contrast stands the woman who has Yirat Hashem. SHE will be praised.
  2. By saying Isha Yirat Hashem we understand that Chen and Yofi are connected to the Yisha. Now we need the SHE.
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Chen is grace, Yofi is beauty, Hevel is pointless, Sheker is false. –  avi Nov 10 '11 at 14:33
    
@avi, I like to translate chen as "charm" or "likeability". "Grace" as a term is overused and hence ambiguous. Just MHO. –  msh210 Nov 10 '11 at 19:37
    
+1 for answer 1. I don't really understand answer 2. –  msh210 Nov 10 '11 at 19:38
    
Try to say the sentence without it and you will feel that there is no connection between the 2 phrases. This is done by the word "Isha". Now we need the "SHE" to tell us we are speaking about the last woman –  rony Nov 12 '11 at 20:16
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