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up vote 8 down vote favorite

Are the qualifications for being called בישול (cooking) the same for Shabbos (e.g., frying is a question in Halacha if it is recognized as Cooking to say אין בישול אחר בישול - there is no such thing as cooking after choking) as they are for being responsible for Cooking meat and milk together, or are they different? Please illustrate with an example.

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Not directly related, but the laws of bishul on shabbos and on yom tov (for eruv tavshilin) are different--this in the name of Rav Yaakov (iirc) Yosef. Example: you have a pot of soup in your fridge. On shabbos, you aren't allowed to bring it to a boil. But you can on yom tov for shabbos, even if you didn't make an eruv tavshilin. – JXG Sep 15 '11 at 6:44
@JXG, do you mean him? Also, why doesn't the general rule against hachana apply to that pot, even if there's no bishul issue? – msh210♦ Jan 27 '12 at 17:14
@msh210, haha, no, I mean the son of Rav Ovadia. The general rule for hachana is that on Yom Tov, you are allowed to prepare for Shabbat, particularly for things that are not allowed on Shabbat but are allowed on Yom Tov. A detailed answer is beyond the scope of my brain. – JXG Jan 29 '12 at 7:14

3 Answers

up vote 6 down vote accepted

See the Aruch HaShulchan YD 87:10 where he says that you cannot bring a proof from the laws of Shabbos to say that frying is a problem of cooking meat and milk. Similarly, by smoking (in #25) he writes the same. In #31 he discusses bishul acher bishul, but seems to conclude that again, despite the rules of Shabbos, the rules of basar b'chalav are different.

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1  
+1, excellent find, but note that in :25 (if the linked-to version is accurate) he quotes the P'ri Chadash as saying that what's true for Shabas is true for basar b'chalav — so apparently the AHS's is not the only opinion on this issue. – msh210♦ Sep 15 '11 at 3:46
Wow !!!thanx alot amazing research team we have here I think staying here long enough and taking part of the conversations makes you an aromatic Talmid Chacham – Chalutzhanal Sep 15 '11 at 4:34
up vote 2 down vote

To some extent it seems to be. See Hullin 108b, Rashi DH "Aherim" and Ritva on that Rashi. He says that he level of Bishul that qualifies as a lav for Basar BeHalav is Ben D'rosai

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3  
Vram, welcome to the site! Try linking to sources online (like through www.hebrewbooks.org) to make your answers more useful. – Double AA♦ Jan 26 '12 at 5:24
up vote 1 down vote

They definitely are the same.

There are hundreds of proofs for this.

Just one that springs immediately to mind: עיין סימן ק״ה ש״ך ס״ק ה׳ ושפתי דעת על אתר.

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You mean Sifse Daas? – msh210♦ Jan 26 '12 at 19:04
Yes. I meant sifsei daas. Typed on my iPhone and it changed it. Thanks. – AlwaysLearning Jan 27 '12 at 7:52

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