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Jews under Charlemagne in the 8th century and the Carolingian emperors were accredited food providers in addition to providing wine for Christian mass. I am looking for halachic responses to these opportunities; e.g., food issues, basar b'chalav, and issues of providing wine used in a religious ceremony.

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Rabbi Levi Cash, welcome to the site; I hope you stick around and enjoy it. If you register, you'll be able to log in from other locations, so the site can keep track of your contributions better and provide you with a better experience on the site. –  msh210 Sep 14 '11 at 19:40
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Rabbi Levi Cash, welcome to Judaism.SE, and thanks very much for what promises to be an interesting question! Could you please flesh out your question a bit more, in terms of references about the historical situation and in terms of the issues you think should have come up? –  Isaac Moses Sep 14 '11 at 19:41
    
    
I think you need to start a bounty on this one already –  Imray Jan 20 '13 at 3:01
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2 Answers

Charlemagne was a Catholic Christian. I believe that the overwhelming opinion in Halacha is that Christianity is a form of Avodah Zara.

Providing wine for religious ceremonies is a form of sustaining Avodah Zara, something that is strictly prohibited. (Maseches Avodah Zara)

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The question seeks "halachic responses to these opportunities" — the opportunities "under Charlemagne in the 8th century and the Carolingian emperors". Can you substantiate your claim that the passage (which you did not cite precisely) in maseches Avoda Zara was a response to those opportunities? –  msh210 Jul 8 '13 at 16:54
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It is forbidden to derive pleasure/benefit from wine that a non-Jew touched since we suspect that it may have been used in an idolatrous ceremony (not so much the case nowadays, but we maintain the issur.

We learn from the Rema (Yoreh Daiah 123:1) that one cannot give wine, which can become an assar behana'ah, to a non-Jew as a gift, since the gift generates goodwill and thus benefit is derived. I think it's fair to apply the same logic to selling wine to a non-Jew which generates profit, or at least revenue.

See more at Chicago Kosher;

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The Rema is only talking about wine that has already been touched by the non-Jew. The question could be asking about wine which hasn't yet been touched by a non-Jew. Moreover, do you have any evidence any of this was written in response to Charlemagne? –  Double AA Nov 5 '12 at 20:06
    
No, why does it specifically have to do with the Jews under Charlemagne? The Rema held that any benefit from something that is assur behana'ah is assur. Regarding whether the wine he was talking about was already touched - you could be correct. –  Imray Nov 5 '12 at 22:12
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Re "why does it specifically have to do with the Jews under Charlemagne?": because the question sought "halachic responses to these opportunities [under Charlemagne and the Carolingian emperors]". –  msh210 Nov 6 '12 at 6:40
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