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When one is saying a b'racha and realizes only after saying God's name that the b'racha is no longer valid, he can avoid the problem of uttering God's name in vain by tacking on the words "למדני חקיך", thus transforming an aborted b'racha into a fully-formed pasuk.

If one hears another person use this fallback is it appropriate to respond with "אמן" as one would to a b'racha, or is the person simply quoting a pasuk, therefore not warranting such a response (like in the case of ברכת כהנים)?

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By the hadran said after a siyum this Posuk is followed by Amen (more than one ...)

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    – Isaac Moses
    Nov 9, 2010 at 18:12
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    If it was followed by the Kahal saying Amein then you would have a point. However it is part of the Nusach which the person who says the Hadran says, not the people hearing it responding with an Amein. It is similar to when we Daven Shacharis and say Boruch Hashem L'Olam and finish it with Amen V'amen. No one responds to it saying Amein. Here to you would not say Amein after the person finishes saying the Pasuk. Nov 9, 2010 at 19:52
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Well he only said a Posuk so why would you answer Amein? In regard to the issue raised as to this Pasuk being part of the Hadran at the end of a Mesechta and is followed by Amein If it was followed by the Kahal saying Amein then you would have a point. However it is part of the Nusach which the person who says the Hadran says, not the people hearing it responding with an Amein. It is similar to when we Daven Shacharis and say Boruch Hashem L'Olam and finish it with Amen V'amen. No one responds to it saying Amein. Here to you would not say Amein after the person finishes saying the Pasuk.

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    Not a good proof from Shacharit because there "Amen veAmen" is part of the original pasuk. See Psalms 72:19 and Psalms 89:53.
    – Double AA
    Sep 13, 2012 at 5:25
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like birkat cohanim, maybe you should say "ken yehi ratzon"

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    Do you say Kein Yehi Ratzon when someone says Ashrei? You only say it by Birchas Kohanim as you are affirming the Bracha. When there is no affirmation there is no Amein or Kein Yehi Ratzon. Nov 9, 2010 at 17:51
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Sometimes in Tehillim (eg., תהלים פ"ט:נ"ג), you have the expression Amein v'Amein. This is also Tehillim, so why not?

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  • Adam, although I added the reference for you, I'm not sure I agree with you. In the case(s) you're referring to, it's part of the codified text of TaNa"Ch. In the case in the question, it would be the listener's response.
    – Seth J
    Apr 4, 2012 at 15:10

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